2022 Updated DEA-1TT5 Exam Dumps For Dell EMC Information Storage and Management (DCA-ISM) Exam

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Most candidates asked how to prepare for the DEA-1TT5 Associate – Information Storage and Management Version 5.0 certification exam, we recommend choosing the 2022 updated DEA-1TT5 exam dumps online to learn all the Dell EMC Information Storage and Management (DCA-ISM) Exam questions and answers. The most updated DEA-1TT5 exam dumps contain the actual questions and answers, which could be your latest study materials for passing the Associate – Information Storage and Management Exam.

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1. A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for their operations. The company has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict service levels. In addition, the company has less critical applications such as backup and archive .

Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?

Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud.

Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.

Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud.

Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.

2. Which VMware product has pre-defined workflows that helps to automate and coordinate the service delivery and operational functions in a storage infrastructure?

NSX

vSphere ESXi

vRealize Orchestrator

Horizon

3. 1.What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?

Generates the file system namespace from the file contents.

Manages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored.

Manages the storage space for all remote clients.

Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.

4. Why is it important for organizations to maintain a copy of data at a remote site?

Ensure disaster recovery

Provide operational recovery

Ensure data archiving to meet regulatory requirements

Provide flexibility to use stub files for production operations

5. If a company has experienced a passive attack on its IT infrastructure, how is the company's security

impacted?

Access to services is denied.

Availability of data is affected.

Information privacy is compromised.

Data is altered by an unauthorized user.

6. Why should a replica be consistent with its source?

Ensure the usability of the replica

Reduce the need to create multiple replicas

Ensure the security of the replica

Reduce the size of the replica

7. Which benefit is provided by the REST application programming interface of a software-defined storage (SDS) controller?

Enables the data and control planes to be integrated within a physical storage system

Provides a stateful messaging framework for applications to exchange information

Reduces client-side resource utilization by offloading the maintenance of the application state to the server

Enables the use of third-party software tools to manage the storage infrastructure

8. Which task is performed during authentication using Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) control?

Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner

Authenticates client-server applications over the network by using shared-key cryptography

Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider

Uses a hash function to convert the secret code into a hash value that is shared between initiator and target

9. What is an accurate statement about the application streaming technique of application virtualization?

Application is downloaded in portions on the client for local execution

Application executes remotely and its user interface is transmitted to the client

Application executes on the client without the use of a locally-installed agent

Application is converted into a standalone package that directly executes on the client

10. What is an accurate statement about a virtual desktop infrastructure?

Each user is provided a dedicated desktop VM with its own operating system and applications

Operating system and applications hosted on a client system are shared by multiple users

Each user has an individual desktop session on the remote compute system in which applications execute

Operating system and applications on the remote desktop are downloaded on the client for local execution

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11. What is provided by performing an infrastructure discovery?

Creating a list of infrastructure components and their related information

Classifying, organizing, and analyzing all infrastructure management best practices stored in data lakes

Standardizing on-going infrastructure management activities to maintain the storage infrastructure using automation

Gathering issues and tracking movement of data and services across the infrastructure

12. Why is it important for organization to deploy intelligent storage systems in their data centers?

Reduce the complexity of managing information by creating silos of storage

Effectively migrate data from a data center to the cloud at no cost

Reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up

Effectively store and manage information across data centers

13. What is a characteristic of an FC-AL implementation?

Devices can be added and removed dynamically without any impact

Supports connectivity up to 15 million nodes

Requires at least one connectivity device

Reserves one address for connecting an FC-SW port

14. What is used to track where objects and metadata are stored in an OSD system?

Object storage database

Object ID algorithm

Object fingerprinting

Globally unique identifier

15. An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from Monday through Friday.

However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:

- Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM

- Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM

- Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM

- Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM

What is the MTTR of Port 4?

2 hours

3 hours

28 hours

38 hours

16. Which principle enables the creation of a consistent replica of an online database?

Copy on first write

Copy on first access

Redirect on write

Dependent write I/O

17. A company is using an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) to scan and analyze intrusion events .

Which IDPS technique uses a database that contains known attack patterns?

Role-based

Profile-based

Signature-based

Anomaly-based

18. Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to adapt to changing resource requirements by dynamically provisioning and releasing resources?

Resource pooling

Broad network access

Rapid elasticity

On-demand self-service

19. What is an accurate statement about a Converged Network Adapter (CNA)?

Physical adapter that provides the functionality of both a standard NIC and an FC HBA in a single device

Physical adapter that provides the functionality of both a standard NIC and an iSCSI HBA in a single device

Physical adapter that provides the functionality of only a standard HBA in a single device

Physical adapter that provides the functionality of only a standard NIC in a single device

20. Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to use cloud services on heterogeneous thin or thick client platforms?

Resource pooling

High availability

On-demand self-service

Broad network access

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21. What is an accurate statement about a hybrid cloud?

Supports data and application portability for load balancing between clouds

Allows organizations with common concerns to share the cost of deploying the cloud

Enables the entire cloud infrastructure to be controlled by the consumer’s IT staff

Allows an organization to outsource the implementation of a private cloud to a cloud provider

22. Which action takes place during the login phase in an FCoE SAN?

VN_Ports obtain FC addresses

Nodes locate the Fibre Channel Forwarder

Initialization protocol starts transporting FC data

VN_Port to N_Port pairing is established

23. What is true regarding information-centric storage architecture?

Storage capacity can be increased dynamically without impacting information availability.

Storage architecture improves overall storage capacity utilization but decreases flexibility of information management.

Storage devices are internal to servers and are not shared between multiple compute systems.

Storage architecture reduces the cost of individual disk drives within the server but limits storage scalability.

24. What is the correct sequence of steps to authenticate an initiator and a target using one-way Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) after the initiator performs a login to the target?

25. What is a benefit of N_Port virtualization (NPV)?

Reduces the number of domain IDs in a fabric

Eliminates the overhead of fabric services in an FC SAN

Enables online expansion of virtual volumes

Allows an N_Port to transfer multiple VSAN traffic

26. What enables a NAS device to provide improved performance compared to a general purpose file server?

Using an operating system specialized for file serving

Minimizing file duplication on client workstations for file serving

Serving file requests by different clients from the same source

Using only Fibre Channel components for faster file serving

27. Why do organizations prefer to adopt Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)?

Increase the effective utilization of hardware resources in their data centers

Eliminate both CAPEX and OPEX in managing disaster recovery at remote sites

Understand and learn DRaaS best practices from service providers

Avoid maintaining a complete set of IT resources in a remote data center for disaster recovery

28. What is an accurate statement about remote desktop services?

Operating system and applications hosted on a remote compute system are shared by multiple users

Users are provided dedicated virtual machines running operating system and applications, and hosted on a client system

Users have the flexibility to install applications and modify operating system settings on the remote compute system

Users' interface of the remote desktop is transmitted to the client without the use of a remote display protocol

29. What is enabled by the N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV)?

A single physical N_Portto obtain multiple FC addresses

A single virtual N_Port to act as a physical Ethernet port

A virtualization layer to map virtual volumes to LUN IDs

A single physical N_Port to act as a virtual HBA port

30. Which client-server protocol uses a ticket-based authentication mechanism?

CHAP

Kerberos

iSNS

OpenID

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31. What accurately describes a shared pool in virtual provisioning?

Should contain only homogeneous disk drive types.

Supports a single RAID protection level.

Consists of only a virtual storage volume.

Should contain only physical drives with different sizes.

32. Which type of login assigns an FC address to a node in an FC SAN environment?

PRLI

FLOGI

WWNN

PLOGI

33. Which component initiates scheduled backups during backup operations?

Backup server

Backup client

Backup storage node

Backup device

34. What is an accurate statement about image-based backup of virtual machines (VMs)?

Backup agents run only inside the VM

Backup processing is offloaded from the hypervisor

Backup process does not use snapshot technology

Backup agents run on both the VMs and hypervisor

35. Which EMC product provides a remote replication solution for EMC VMAX3 storage systems?

SRDF

Snap Sure

Mirror View

Protect Point

36. What is determined by the amount of space configured for the journal in continuous data protection (CDP) replication?

Length of time required to recover the data

Length of time the recovery points can go back

Amount of data that can be restored to a specific point

Amount of space the source and replica volumes require

37. In which format do block-based storage systems store data?

Variable blocks of 512 to 2048 bytes each

Fixed blocks of 512 bytes each

Fixed blocks of 4,068 bytes each

Fixed blocks of 4,069 bytes each

38. What accurately describes the flow control mechanism in an FC SAN?

Both transmitting and receiving ports agree on the number of buffers available during port login

Negotiation occurs between an E_Port and an F_Port, and between two N_Ports

Credit value is incremented when a frame is transmitted and decremented upon receiving a response

Receiver Ready (R_RDY) is sent from the receiving port if available credits reach zero

39. When using a bridged iSCSI connection, which components facilitate communication between gateways?

Compute system with iSCSI ports and the storage system with Ethernet ports.

Compute system with iSCSI ports and the storage system with only FC ports.

Compute system with FC HBA ports and the storage system with only FC ports.

Compute system with FCoE ports and the storage system with iSCSI ports.

40. A company has virtualized their data center and wants to deploy a recovery-in-place backup approach.

What is the advantage of this type of approach?

Acquires backup services through a self-service portal

Eliminates the backup impact on the application servers

Reduces the recovery point objective to restore the data to any previous point-in-time using backed up VMs

Eliminates the need to transfer the image from the backup device to the primary storage before it is restarted

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41. What accurately describes the scale-out storage architecture?

Scales the capacity only within a single storage system.

Provides a fixed capacity ceiling that limits scalability beyond a storage system.

Provides the capability to maximize its capacity by adding nodes to the cluster.

Restricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers.

42. A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational 24x7.

However, a failure of Port 5 occurs on a particular week as follows:

- Monday = 11 AM to 12 PM

- Thursday = 7 AM to 11 AM

- Saturday = 11 AM to 1 PM

What is the availability of Port 5 in that week?

93%

94.1%

95.8%

97%

43. What keeps the name server up-to-date on all switches in a fabric?

SW-RSCN

Management server

Zoning

FLOGI

44. What is an accurate statement about hypervisor-based continuous data protection (CDP)?

Write splitter is embedded in the hypervisor

Journal is stored in a virtual machine

Journal and replica use the same storage volume

Virtual appliance runs on a storage system

45. An application generates 8400 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1 .

What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 5 configuration?

4800

11200

16800

22400

46. What is an accurate statement about VSAN trunking?

Allows network traffic from multiple VSANs to traverse a single interswitch link

Enables an F_Port to transfer multiple VSAN traffic over a single port channel

Provides VSAN IDs to F_Ports to include them in the VSANs

Forwards FC frames between F_Ports that belong to the same VSAN

47. Which functionality is provided by a process login in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN environment?

Exchanges service relevant parameters between an N_port and an N_port

Establishes a connection to the fabric between an N_port and an F_port

Exchange ULP-related parameters between two N_ports

Establishes a session that occurs between two E_ports

48. Which management function involves configuring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specific LUN in a data center environment?

Performance Management

Change Management

Security Management

Configuration Management

49. What is the correct sequence of steps that need to be performed in storage system-based synchronous remote replication?

50. What is the primary advantage of RAID 6 compared to RAID 5?

High available storage capacity.

Low write penalty.

High resiliency.

Low rebuild time for data.

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51. Why is it important for organizations to implement a multi-site remote replication solution?

Ensure data protection is always available if there are any single site failures

Provide consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures

Perform synchronous replication with low network bandwidth

Recover data to any point-in-time in the event of a remote site failure

52. Which product provides an organization with the power to search and analyze vast amounts of data in one place and helps administrators to discover suspicious event trends?

Dell InTrust

Dell Change Auditor

VMware AppDefense

VMware AirWatch

53. Which cloud computing characteristic enables multi-tenancy and abstracts the location of provided resources?

Resource pooling

Measured service

Rapid elasticity

Broad network access

54. Which operation is represented in the exhibit?

Write-back Cache

Read Cache Miss

Write-through Cache

Read Cache Hit

55. Which data archiving component scans primary storage to find the files that meet the archiving policy?

Archive storage

Archive database server

Archive agent

Archive stub file

56. What is an activity in the risk assessment step of risk management?

Continuously observe the existing risks

Plan and deploy security controls

Identify the sources of threats that increase the risks

Determine the likelihood of a risk

57. What provides users with self-service access to pre-defined storage services?

Storage controller

Control plane

Service catalog

Service discovery

58. Which Fibre Channel (FC) interconnectivity option is represented in the graphic?

FC-AL

FCoE

FC-SW

Point-to-Point

59. In an FCoE environment, which functionality provides a framework for the allocation of bandwidth to different network traffic classes?

Enhanced transmission selection

Priority-based flow control

Congestion notification

Data center bridging exchange protocol

60. What is a component of an FCoE switch?

Ethernet Bridge

Virtual N_Port

Converged Network Adapter

FCIP Forwarder

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61. What is an accurate statement about Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) control?

Enables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code

Provides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography

Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner

Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider

62. What does the "X" represent in the exhibit?

E_port

F_port

N_port

NL_port

63. What is an accurate statement about a continuous data protection (CDP) remote replication solution?

Write splitter is only implemented at the compute system running on the remote site

Appliances are present at both the source and remote sites

Replica and journal volume should be of the same size

Journal and production volumes must be of the same size

64. If a configuration management database (CMDB) system contains different configuration items (CIs), what is considered a CI?

Governance procedure

Username

Security guideline

Customer feedback

65. What is a benefit when a node is added to a scale-out NAS cluster?

Increased cluster performance

Reduced capital expenditure

Simplified cluster management

Decreased data duplication

66. In an SDS environment, which protocol supports the resource-oriented architecture for the development of scalable and lightweight web applications while adhering to a set of constraints?

FTP

NFS

CIFS

REST

67. What is an accurate statement about OAuth security control?

Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner

Provides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography

Enables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code

Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider

68. Which EMC product is a VNX array-based local replication software that creates a full volume mirrorof the source?

SnapView Snapshot

SnapView Clone

TimeFinder/Snap

TimeFinder/Clone

69. What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?

Backup device can be shared among multiple NAS heads

Each NAS head should have a dedicated backup device

Backup data traverses at least three NAS heads before reaching the backup device

Backup is performed only when three or more NAS heads are present

70. In the FC protocol stack, what is the function of the FC-4 layer?

Provides standards for the physical interface, media, and transmission of bits

Provides FC addressing, structure, and organization of data

Provides transmission words, primitive signals, and link initialization

Defines application interfaces and maps storage protocols

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71. What does an area ID represent in Fibre Channel (FC) addressing?

Group of switch ports

Switch within a group

Port within a group

Group of switches

72. What accurately describes a software-defined architecture?

Supports only central management of private cloud resources using a pre-defined policy.

Provides a unified management platform for centralized monitoring and administration.

Uses only converged and hyperconverged infrastructures to offer services to companies.

Provides decentralized, manual, and policy-driven IT resource management.

73. An organization wants to secure and protect the data from unauthorized access on a storage medium.

Which security control helps to secure the data?

LUN masking

Encryption

Identity and Access

Degaussing

74. What is an accurate statement about a hardware RAID implementation?

Uses a specialized hardware controller installed on a storage array

Uses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations

Requires a RAID controller and operating system to be compatible

Offers a low-cost solution for providing disk protection

75. What is an advantage of implementing email archiving?

Reduce the cost of managing the email archiving server and storage

Reduce redundant emails in a mailbox to facilitate faster recovery

Provide high availability and continuous access to business emails

Increase the mailbox space by moving old emails to archive storage

76. An application generates 4200 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1 .

What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 6 configuration?

2800

5600

8400

11200

77. Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit?

X is an F_Port and Y is an E_Port

X is an F_Port and Y is a G_Port

X is a G_Port and Y is an N_Port

X is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port

78. Which type of storage system is built specifically for storing fixed content?

Content addressed storage

Block-based storage

File-based storage

Unified storage

79. Which method does an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) use to identify intrusions by scanning and analyzing events to detect if they are statistically different from normal events?

Anomaly-based

Signature-based

Profile-based

Device-based

80. Which part of the Fibre Channel (FC) frame does the label “X” represent in the exhibit?

Frame Header

CRC

SOF

Data Field

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81. What does the "variability" characteristic of big data signify?

Importance in obtaining the right information from data at all possible contexts

Cost-effectiveness and business value obtained from massive volumes of data

Diversity in the formats and types of data generated from various sources

mportance in the quality of data gathered from a number of sources

82. A company's assets are continuously under attack.

To deploy a security control mechanism to protect these assets, what should be considered?

Minimize the work factor

Easy access to assets by authorized users

Limited access to assets by unauthorized users

Maximize the attack surface

83. Match the types of attack with their respective description.

84. An organization wants to migrate to a new payroll application. They lack the skills to deploy and administer the new application .

Which cloud service model will meet their need?

Database as a service

Infrastructure as a Service

Platform as a Service

Software as a Service

85. Which benefit does the measured service characteristic provide to a cloud service provider?

Enables control and optimization of resource use

Enables cloud services to communicate with each other

Enables availability of specific resources depending on policy

Enables the reduction and/or elimination of upfront IT expenditure

86. What describes dynamic disk sparing?

Replaces the identity of the failed drive with the working drive

Allows changing the data protection scheme applied on the RAID set

Replaces a failed disk drive by assuming the identity of the failed disk drive

Contains mirrored data at all times and used when the primary drive fails

87. Which global addressing does the REST application programming interface use for the discovery of a storage service?

Uniform Resource Identifier

Namespace

Extensible Markup Language

Controller-provided MAC address

88. What is the goal of a business continuity solution?

Reduce the amount of investment in protecting an organization's business-related data.

Avoid a disaster in a data protection environment to control the loss of data.

Ensure information availability that is required to conduct vital business operations.

Eliminate security threats in a data protection environment for continuous access to data.

89. What is an accurate statement about a software RAID implementation?

Uses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations

Supports the upgrade of RAID software on incompatible O/S

Uses a specialized hardware controller to perform RAID calculations

Supports all RAID levels

90. Which environment is represented in the graphic?

Read miss

Read hit

Cache write-back

Cache write-through

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91. What is an advantage of deploying a storage area network (SAN) in a data center environment?

Allows a faster access rate by removing the complications of network setu

Reduces the network traffic between compute systems and consolidated storage

Enables data replication between storage systems across different locations

Provides a direct-attached connection between compute systems and storage

92. What is an example of an availability management task in storage infrastructure management?

Designing a new replication solution for data redundancy

Performing trend analysis of storage space consumption

Tracking configuration changes to storage components

Specifying storage space quotas for users

93. Why do organizations need a malware protection software?

Secure critical applications by using strong credentials

Prevent authorized modification of OS-sensitive areas

Protect applications and the OS against trojan horse programs

Prevent eavesdropping and tampering of application data

94. In a virtualized environment, which method enables a virtual machine to be rolled back in case of a logical corruption to the virtual machine?

Virtual volume replication

VM snapshot

Storage array volume replication

VM clone

95. What is determined by the recovery point objective in a business continuity solution?

Frequency of the backup

Type of backup devices

Type of disaster recovery site

Distance between the primary and disaster recovery sites

96. What is a benefit of application virtualization?

Avoids conflicts between different versions of the same application

Enables an application to directly access a LUN on a storage system

Runs applications without requiring the use of cache memory

Presents more memory to an application than is physically available

97. Which NAS implementation requires separate management of the NAS head and the storage?

Gateway

Scale-out

Unified

Integrated

98. What is a function of the orchestration layer in a data center infrastructure?

Provides workflows for automated execution of management tasks

Aggregates physical infrastructure components into resource pools

Measures the consumption of IT resources byvarious services

Decouples an operating environment from the underlying hardware

99. What is a benefit of implementing a virtual machine (VM) storage migration?

Balances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage systems

Enables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure

Improves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system

Reduces the overall storage system capacity requirements for organizations

100. Based on the exhibit, what does the "X", "Y", and "Z" represent in a NAS environment?

X = FC SAN, Y = IP Network, and Z = NAS Gateway

X = IP Network, Y = FC SAN, and Z = NAS Gateway

X = FC SAN, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z= IP Network

X = IP Network, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z = FC SAN

2022 Updated DEA-1TT5 Exam Dumps For Dell EMC Information Storage and Management (DCA-ISM) Exam